41 free NCLEX-RN practice questions with answers and rationales. Tap an answer, then check it. Questions cover all eight Client Needs categories.
- Answer before you peek.
- Read every rationale, even when you get it right.
- SATA items: choose every correct option. This page scores all-or-nothing; the real NCLEX gives partial credit.
The nurse receives report on four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
Rationale: Perioral tingling after a thyroidectomy suggests hypocalcemia from parathyroid injury. It can progress to tetany and laryngospasm, which threatens the airway. An SpO2 of 88-92% is often an acceptable target in COPD, and the pain and glucose findings are expected or non-urgent.
Which task is appropriate for the RN to delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
Rationale: UAP can collect routine vital signs on a stable client. Teaching, assessment, and evaluation require nursing judgment and stay with the RN.
Which client assignment is most appropriate for a licensed practical nurse (LPN)?
Rationale: LPNs care for stable clients with predictable outcomes and can give scheduled subcutaneous medications. New admissions, the start of a blood transfusion, and initial teaching require RN assessment and judgment.
A client is admitted with suspected pulmonary tuberculosis. Which precautions should the nurse implement?
Rationale: TB spreads by airborne droplet nuclei. The client needs a negative-pressure (airborne infection isolation) room, and staff wear a fit-tested N95 respirator.
A client has Clostridioides difficile infection. Which action by the nurse is correct?
Rationale: C. difficile spores are not reliably killed by alcohol-based hand rub. Soap and water physically remove spores, and contact (enteric) precautions with a gown and gloves prevent spread.
A client taking digoxin has an apical pulse of 52/min and a serum potassium of 3.1 mEq/L. What should the nurse do?
Rationale: Bradycardia plus hypokalemia raises the risk of digoxin toxicity and dysrhythmias. Hold the dose and notify the provider. Hypokalemia increases digoxin's effect on the heart.
A client is receiving a continuous IV heparin infusion. Which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor to titrate the infusion?
Rationale: Unfractionated heparin is titrated to the aPTT or anti-Xa level. PT/INR is used for warfarin. Also watch platelets for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. The antidote is protamine sulfate.
A client taking warfarin has an INR of 6.2 and bleeding gums. Which medication should the nurse anticipate?
Rationale: Vitamin K reverses warfarin. Protamine reverses heparin, naloxone reverses opioids, and flumazenil reverses benzodiazepines.
The nurse is teaching a client who is starting lithium. Which statements should the nurse include? Select all that apply.
Rationale: Low sodium or dehydration raises lithium levels and causes toxicity, so intake should stay steady. GI loss and coarse tremor are signs of toxicity. NSAIDs raise lithium levels, and stopping abruptly risks relapse.
The nurse is mixing regular insulin and NPH insulin in one syringe. Which action is correct?
Rationale: Clear before cloudy: draw up regular insulin first so the regular vial is not contaminated with NPH. Air is injected into both vials, NPH first. Roll NPH gently; do not shake it.
A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis. Which prescription should the nurse implement first?
Rationale: DKA causes severe dehydration from osmotic diuresis. Isotonic fluid resuscitation comes first, followed by an IV regular insulin infusion once potassium is known to be adequate.
The nurse notes continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a client's chest drainage system. What should the nurse do first?
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber signals an air leak. Check connections from the dressing to the unit. Gentle intermittent bubbling or tidaling with breathing is expected. Prolonged clamping can cause a tension pneumothorax.
A client had a cardiac catheterization through the right femoral artery 1 hour ago. Which finding requires immediate action?
Rationale: A cool extremity with an absent pulse suggests arterial occlusion from a thrombus or hematoma. Notify the provider immediately. Minor bruising is expected, and the client can use a bedpan while on bed rest.
A client's serum potassium is 2.9 mEq/L. Which ECG finding does the nurse expect?
Rationale: Hypokalemia causes flattened T waves, prominent U waves, and ST depression. Peaked T waves and a sine-wave pattern are seen with hyperkalemia.
A client is scheduled for a CT scan with IV contrast. Which finding is most important to report to the provider?
Rationale: Contrast can worsen kidney function. With impaired renal function, metformin raises the risk of lactic acidosis, so it is usually held around contrast studies. The provider needs this information before the scan.
Which set of vital signs indicates increasing intracranial pressure in a client with a head injury?
Rationale: Cushing's triad (rising systolic BP with a widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and irregular respirations) is a late sign of increased ICP and impending herniation.
Which action is most important when the nurse feeds a client who has dysphagia after a stroke?
Rationale: Sitting upright with the chin tucked helps protect the airway. Straws and thin liquids increase aspiration risk, and the client should stay upright for about 30 minutes after eating.
Which intervention helps prevent pressure injuries in an immobile client?
Rationale: Regular repositioning relieves pressure. Massaging reddened areas damages tissue, donut cushions reduce blood flow to the center, and a high head of bed increases shear on the sacrum.
Which toy is most appropriate for a hospitalized 2-year-old?
Rationale: Toddlers engage in parallel play and build gross motor skills. Push-pull toys and large blocks fit that stage. Small pieces are a choking hazard.
A postpartum client's fundus is firm, 2 cm above the umbilicus, and deviated to the right. What should the nurse do first?
Rationale: A firm fundus that is high and displaced to one side usually means a full bladder. A distended bladder can keep the uterus from contracting well. Have the client void, then reassess.
A client in labor receiving oxytocin has recurrent late decelerations. What is the nurse's first action?
Rationale: Late decelerations reflect uteroplacental insufficiency. Stop the oxytocin, reposition the client to her side, give an IV fluid bolus, and notify the provider.
A client with depression says, "I won't be a burden much longer." Which response is best?
Rationale: Statements like this can signal suicidal intent. Asking directly and clearly about suicide is safe and necessary for assessment. The other responses dismiss the client, ask for justification, or change the subject.
A client whose last drink was 2 days ago is tremulous, diaphoretic, has a heart rate of 118/min, and reports seeing bugs on the wall. Which medication should the nurse anticipate?
Rationale: These are signs of alcohol withdrawal. Benzodiazepines such as lorazepam or chlordiazepoxide treat withdrawal symptoms and help prevent seizures. The others are for maintaining abstinence.
The nurse discovers a fire in a client's room. What should the nurse do first?
Rationale: Follow RACE: Rescue, Alarm, Contain (close doors), then Extinguish or Evacuate. Removing clients from immediate danger comes first.
Before giving a medication, which action correctly identifies the client?
Rationale: Use two identifiers, such as name and date of birth, confirmed against the wristband and the medication record. Room numbers and bed labels are not identifiers, and yes/no questions invite a wrong answer.
A client with pneumonia is being evaluated for sepsis. Which findings require immediate follow-up? Select all that apply.
Rationale: Fever, tachycardia, hypotension, and a lactate of 4 or higher point to sepsis with tissue hypoperfusion (possible septic shock). An SpO2 of 97% and a glucose of 118 mg/dL do not need immediate action.
A client receiving IV morphine is difficult to arouse and has a respiratory rate of 8/min. After stopping the opioid and supporting the airway, what should the nurse do?
Rationale: This is opioid-induced respiratory depression. Naloxone reverses it. Monitor closely afterward, because naloxone can wear off before the opioid does.
A client's blood glucose is 58 mg/dL. The client is alert and able to swallow. What should the nurse do?
Rationale: Use the rule of 15: give 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate and recheck in 15 minutes. Glucagon or IV dextrose is for clients who cannot swallow safely.
Ten minutes into a blood transfusion, the client reports chills and low back pain, and the temperature is rising. What should the nurse do first?
Rationale: These are signs of an acute hemolytic reaction. Stop the transfusion first, keep the IV open with 0.9% saline through new tubing, notify the provider and blood bank, and return the blood bag and tubing.
A client is scheduled for surgery. What is the nurse's role in informed consent?
Rationale: The provider explains the procedure and obtains consent. The nurse witnesses the signature, confirms the client is competent and not sedated, and notifies the provider if the client does not understand.
The nurse is teaching a client with heart failure. Which instructions should the nurse include? Select all that apply.
Rationale: Daily weights detect fluid retention early, and rapid gain should be reported. Sodium restriction limits fluid overload. Diuretics should be taken as prescribed.
A 4-year-old is drooling, sitting in a tripod position, and has a high fever. Epiglottitis is suspected. Which action by a new nurse requires the charge nurse to intervene?
Rationale: Examining the throat can trigger laryngospasm and complete airway obstruction in epiglottitis. Keep the child calm and upright, and have airway equipment ready.
The RN is working with an LPN and a UAP. Which task should the RN delegate to the UAP?
Rationale: Measuring intake and output on a stable client is within UAP scope. Reinforcing teaching fits the LPN. Checking an incision is assessment, and explaining a new diet is initial teaching, both of which stay with the RN.
A client who received IV opioids is drowsy. ABG: pH 7.30, PaCO2 58 mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret this?
Rationale: pH is low (acidosis) and PaCO2 is high, so the cause is respiratory. HCO3 is normal, so the kidneys have not compensated yet. Hypoventilation from opioids retains CO2.
An anxious client is breathing rapidly. ABG: pH 7.48, PaCO2 30 mmHg, HCO3 23 mEq/L. Which interpretation is correct?
Rationale: pH is high (alkalosis) and PaCO2 is low from blowing off CO2, so it is respiratory. HCO3 is normal, so it is uncompensated. Coach slow breathing.
A client with diabetic ketoacidosis has deep, rapid respirations. ABG: pH 7.29, PaCO2 30 mmHg, HCO3 15 mEq/L. Which interpretation is correct?
Rationale: pH is low and HCO3 is low, so it is metabolic acidosis. PaCO2 is low because the lungs are blowing off CO2 to compensate (Kussmaul respirations), but pH is still abnormal, so it is partially compensated.
A client has had NG suction for 3 days. ABG: pH 7.50, PaCO2 48 mmHg, HCO3 34 mEq/L. Which interpretation is correct?
Rationale: pH is high and HCO3 is high, so it is metabolic alkalosis from loss of gastric acid. PaCO2 is elevated as the lungs retain CO2 to compensate, but pH is still abnormal, so it is partially compensated.
A client with long-standing COPD has this ABG: pH 7.37, PaCO2 52 mmHg, HCO3 30 mEq/L. Which interpretation is correct?
Rationale: pH is normal but on the acidic side of 7.40. PaCO2 is high (respiratory acidosis) and HCO3 is high because the kidneys have retained bicarbonate. With pH back in range, it is fully compensated, a common baseline in COPD.
A child is admitted with suspected measles. Which room assignment is most appropriate?
Rationale: Measles is spread by the airborne route. The child needs a negative-pressure room with the door closed, and staff wear N95 respirators.
A client is diagnosed with pertussis. Which personal protective equipment should the nurse wear when entering the room?
Rationale: Pertussis is spread by respiratory droplets, so droplet precautions apply: a surgical mask when entering the room, plus standard precautions.
The nurse is teaching a client who is starting alendronate. Which instructions should the nurse include? Select all that apply.
Rationale: Alendronate is poorly absorbed with food or calcium and can cause esophageal irritation. Take it on an empty stomach with plain water and stay upright for 30 minutes.
How to answer NCLEX questions
- Airway, breathing, circulation first, unless the client is in cardiac arrest (then CAB).
- Unstable before stable. New, sudden, or unexpected findings beat chronic, expected ones.
- Assess before you act, unless the stem already gives you the assessment data.
- Safety wins. Pick the answer that protects the client from the most immediate harm.
- Answer for the ideal hospital, not the one you worked in during clinicals.
Question types you will see
- Multiple choice: one best answer.
- Select all that apply (SATA): treat each option as true or false.
- Next Generation NCLEX (NGN): matrix grids, drop-down cloze, bow-tie, highlight, drag-and-drop, and trend items.
- Case studies: three unfolding cases of six items each, one per clinical judgment step.
Want more?
- Get a new question every day: NCLEX Question of the Day
- Plan your weeks: NCLEX Study Plan Builder
- Drill the numbers: NCLEX Lab Values Chart
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Frequently asked questions
Are these NCLEX practice questions free?
Yes. All questions on this page are free with full rationales. No account is needed.
How many practice questions should I do before the NCLEX?
Most successful students complete somewhere between 1,500 and 3,000 quality practice questions and review every rationale. Reviewing why each answer is right or wrong matters more than the raw number.
What types of questions are on the NCLEX?
The NCLEX includes standard multiple choice, select all that apply (SATA), and Next Generation NCLEX formats such as matrix, drop-down (cloze), bow-tie, highlight, and trend items, including three unfolding case studies.
Are the questions based on the current test plan?
Yes. They cover the eight Client Needs categories in the 2026 NCLEX-RN test plan, effective April 1, 2026 through March 31, 2029.